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PRMIA 8011考古題分享:Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam考試|PRMIA 8011最佳捷徑
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PRMIA 8011認證考試是一項高度專業化的認證,旨在為專業人士提供有效管理信用和交易對手風險所需的知識和技能。它涵蓋了與信用和交易對手風險相關的一系列主題,適用於在金融行業工作的專業人士。這項認證在金融行業中具有極高的價值,並獲得了世界許多領先金融機構的認可。
PRMIA 8011,也稱為信用和交易對手管理員(CCRM)證書考試,是風險管理專業人士在金融業中最嚴格的評估之一。 該證書旨在為專業人士提供必要的知識和技能,以高效地管理信用風險、交易對手風險和資本分配。 CCRM 證書是由專業風險管理師國際協會(PRMIA)全球認可和授予的。
最新的 PRMIA Certification 8011 免費考試真題 (Q125-Q130):
問題 #125
long bond position is hedged using a short position in the futures market. If the hedge performs as expected, then which of the following statements is most accurate:
- A. None of the above
- B. the investor will be able to avoid losses but will also forgo the gains on his positions
- C. the investor will be able to avoid losses
- D. the investor will be able to avoid losses and will also be able to keep the gains on his positions
答案:B
解題說明:
If the hedge performs as expected, then any P&L on the long bond position will be offset by identical losses (or gains) on the hedge.
Since hedges are never perfect, and some residual risk such as basis risk, the inability to enter into an unrounded number of futures contracts will remain. However, the bulk of the risk would be mitigated, and the investor will be able to avoid any losses but will also forgo any gains. Therefore choice b is the correct answer and the rest are incorrect.
問題 #126
Under the internal ratings based approach for risk weighted assets, for which of the following parameters must each institution make internal estimates (as opposed to relying upon values determined by a national supervisor):
- A. Exposure at default
- B. Probability of default
- C. Loss given default
- D. Effective maturity
答案:B
問題 #127
Which of the following are true:
I. Monte Carlo estimates of VaR can be expected to be identical or very close to those obtained using analytical methods if both are based on the same parameters.
II. Non-normality of returns does not pose a problem if we use Monte Carlo simulations based upon parameters and a distribution assumed to be normal.
III. Historical VaR estimates do not require any distribution assumptions.
IV. Historical simulations by definition limit VaR estimation only to the range of possibilities that have already occurred.
- A. I, II and III
- B. III and IV
- C. I, III and IV
- D. All of the above
答案:C
解題說明:
Statement I is true. If a Monte Carlo simulation is based upon the same parameters as used for analytical VaR, and enough number of simulations are carried out, we would get the same results as with analytical VaR.
Statement II is false. We cannot use Monte Carlo simulations using parameters based upon a normal assumption when the underlying distribution is not normal. For example, if a return stream is based upon say a uniform distribution, we cannot use a simulation based upon drawings from a normal distribution even though we use the same mean and standard deviation.
Statement III is true. This is the advantage of historical simulations - no assumptions are necessary.
(Historical simulations however often suffer from the great disadvantage of the paucity of data that would cover all possibilities.) Statement IV is true. The results of historical simulations are limited to the data they are based upon.
問題 #128
Which of the following credit risk models considers debt as including a put option on the firm's assets to assess credit risk?
- A. The CreditMetrics approach
- B. CreditPortfolio View
- C. The contingent claims approach
- D. The actuarial approach
答案:C
解題說明:
The correct answer is Choice 'c'. The following is a brief description of the major approaches available to model credit risk, and the analysis that underlies them:
1. CreditMetrics: based on the credit migration framework. Considers the probability of migration to other credit ratings and the impact of such migrations on portfolio value.
2. CreditPortfolio View: similar to CreditMetrics, but adds the impact of the business cycle to the evaluation.
3. The contingent claims approach: uses option theory by considering a debt as a put option on the assets of the firm.
4. KMV's EDF (expected default frequency) based approach: relies on EDFs and distance to default as a measure of credit risk.
5. CreditRisk+: Also called the 'actuarial approach', considers default as a binary event that either happens or does not happen. This approach does not consider the loss of value from deterioration in credit quality (unless the deterioration implies default).
問題 #129
Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to the recent financial crisis of 2007-08?
- A. An intention to diversify from their core activities led all market participants to the same activities, which though appearing diversified at the bank's level, created a concentration risk at the systemic level
- B. Counterparty risk was difficult to gauge as it was impossible to know who the counterparty's counterparties were
- C. Central banks had data on the interconnections between institutions, but poor understanding and analysis meant this data was never analyzed
- D. The existence of central counterparties could have limited the damage caused by the financial crisis
答案:C
解題說明:
Counterparty risk was difficult to gauge as it was impossible to know who the counterparty's counterparties were - this is true as the chain of financial transactions became excessively long with no central transparency of who owed who what. Bank A's credit depended upon the health of its counterparties, whose health in turn depended upon other counterparties. Thus Choice 'd' is a correct statement.
In an attempt to diversify, banks became more like each other - chasing yield, they piled into securitized products, and chasing diversification, they piled into different types of securitized products. The system as a whole became susceptible to small shocks in the assets underlying this vast edifice of structured products.
Therefore Choice 'a' represents a correct statement.
Choice 'c' does not represent a correct statement. Central banks had little data on the interconnections between institutions. They were aware of the large volumes of OTC transactions, but had no data to figure out who was connected to who, and who had what kind of exposures.
Choice 'b' represents a correct statement. Most transactions, other than exchange cleared futures trades (which were a tiny fraction of all trades) were cleared on a bilateral basis. The existence of central counterparties (CCPs) could have limited the impact of the crisis significantly as market participants would not have lost trust in each other, and the 'collateral damage' that was witnessed from a fall in housing prices, and thereby mortgage assets, would have been more contained.
問題 #130
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